Transcripts (perhaps draft) of the Article 50 ‘Brexit’ Appeal hearings at the Supreme Court

Do they lapse in relation to things that have already happened? Suppose, for instance, you take EU competition law and ignore the fact that since 2002 we have replicated it in English statutes. There are various torts which arose directly from EU competition law. In respect of the period before the lapse, would they continue to be treated as torts?

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