Can I just ask you then, in relation to the 1972 Act, assume that we were to take the approach that Mr Eadie suggests, namely that the royal prerogative to make and unmake treaties continues to be available, so that effectively the operation of the treaties, at least their direct operation and the regulations under them, ceases; you then have to argue that the devolution legislation makes a difference. You were just arguing that the 2015 Act makes no difference.
What provisions in the devolution legislation make a change in that basic position, on that hypothesis? Your case refers to the restrictions on competence, by reference to EU law but -- and also the Welsh authorities' inability to continue to fulfil certain functions given them by domestic regulations under EU law, but that sort of change will operate across the country. Lots of people will no longer be bound by EU law, or have EU competences. What is there in the devolution legislation which you say demonstrates that the royal prerogative is no longer available if it is available under the 1972 Act?